After a decade of me paying my ex in line with our divorce agreements, she has, after successfully alienating our youngest, decided to try and get even more money from me given she no longer spends any time at my house. So I'm in the 2 weeks to reply to confirm I'm sending her even more money for the privilege of not seeing my child, now in her mid late teens.
But their information is actually wrong, I changed job last year and took a notable pay cut, my annyual income having dropped by about £30k. So I should write and tell them, but at the same time it seems this "normal" level of engagement with them is me just doing what I should do, and them believing me. So if I correct their details, as they can see from my recent payslips, it's dropped notably, so they would then re-evaluate and send out new letters? And of course in the meantime I shouldn't be paying, right?
My ex has spent a LOT of time and effort destroying routes for me to communicate with her, and also when she first blackmailed me into continuing to pay for our oldest after he left education, with the child support threat hanging over me, she said she would immediately insist on it being taken from my pay at source. It seems it's absolutely not her choice if this actually happens, and naturally I'm not going to pay based on an incorrect income. Yet I can't (and shouldn't?) need to prove to HER directly what I'm actually earning, and she probably wouldn't believe me anyway, as she's a real stellar piece of work.
I last paid her the previous amount on the 25th, and the claim was dated from yesterday, so when would i need to start paying? within a month after the start date? What is the realistic route towards it being taken straight from my pay? I actually work for a company in the US, and our UK payroll provider is... very very bad it seems. Is it always a given that it's possible to deduct from source?
Sorry, lots of questions, I'm just really not sure what I should be doing, how safe it is to hang back as long as possible etc.
But their information is actually wrong, I changed job last year and took a notable pay cut, my annyual income having dropped by about £30k. So I should write and tell them, but at the same time it seems this "normal" level of engagement with them is me just doing what I should do, and them believing me. So if I correct their details, as they can see from my recent payslips, it's dropped notably, so they would then re-evaluate and send out new letters? And of course in the meantime I shouldn't be paying, right?
My ex has spent a LOT of time and effort destroying routes for me to communicate with her, and also when she first blackmailed me into continuing to pay for our oldest after he left education, with the child support threat hanging over me, she said she would immediately insist on it being taken from my pay at source. It seems it's absolutely not her choice if this actually happens, and naturally I'm not going to pay based on an incorrect income. Yet I can't (and shouldn't?) need to prove to HER directly what I'm actually earning, and she probably wouldn't believe me anyway, as she's a real stellar piece of work.
I last paid her the previous amount on the 25th, and the claim was dated from yesterday, so when would i need to start paying? within a month after the start date? What is the realistic route towards it being taken straight from my pay? I actually work for a company in the US, and our UK payroll provider is... very very bad it seems. Is it always a given that it's possible to deduct from source?
Sorry, lots of questions, I'm just really not sure what I should be doing, how safe it is to hang back as long as possible etc.